Wordplay [he/him]

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Joined 4 years ago
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Cake day: October 15th, 2020

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  • I’ve done a bunch of research into the lead up to WWII and the evidence is clear that the UK was intentionally stoking tensions between Germany and the Soviets (a good summary from Counterpunch). What I still haven’t figured out, though, is why Poland was the line in the sand for the policy of appeasement. If the UK wanted an armed conflict between Germany and the USSR, why be so passive on Austria and Czechoslovakia only to flip when Poland is threatened, when a partially annexed Poland would have been the gateway for the Eastern war that UK seemed to desire?