• drathvedro
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    1 year ago

    Are there any spanish people? Is it based on person’s gender or the following word’s gender?

    e.g. in Russian, “nebinarniy chelovek” means nonbinary human but in male declension because the word human itself is male, and “nebinarnaya persona” is female because the word person is female. We also have “nebimarnoye litso” where “litso” is face or a person and it’s a third gender literally called soulless, beloved by police and lawyers because its so dehumanizing

    • Goun@lemmy.ml
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      1 year ago

      Interesting! It’s based on the subject’s gender. In spanish, human is male and person is female as well, but we don’t have a third gender.

    • ilikekeyboards@lemmy.world
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      1 year ago

      I don’t even know why you’d debate this thing about the russian language, they’ve got more on their plate until they reach debating social issues

      • Klear@lemmy.world
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        1 year ago

        It’s an example of a language with grammatical gender they are familiar with, so of course they use it as an example. Works the same way in most (all?) slavic languages.

      • drathvedro
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        1 year ago

        It’s true that gender issues are not even something that is talked about currently in Russia. But I’m just using the example from OP post to talk about linguistic features here. For me and I think most English speaking folk it might sound confusing whether Spanish grammatical gender implies person’s gender and threw example in Russian where it doesn’t have to - I can talk about you in male, female, or neutral gender. It only depends on which words I use and which endings they have.